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1. Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver biopsy?

• pain at insertion site
• nausea and vomiting
• back pain
• bleeding

2. A patient puts out his arm so that you can take his blood pressure. What type of consent is this?

• Verbal
• Written
• Implied
• None of the above, consent is not required.

3. What Is not a cause of postural hypotension?

• The time of day
• Lack of exercise
• Temperature
• Recent food intake

4. What is the name given to a decreased pulse rate or heart rate?

• Tachycardia
• Hypotension
• Bradycardia
• Arrhythmia

5. Which is not a cause of postural hypotension?

• the time of day
• lack of exercise
• temperature
• recent food intake

6. While having lunch at the cafeteria, your co-worker suddenly collapsed. As a nurse, what would you do?

• You are on lunch, no actions should be taken
• Assess for any danger
• Tap the patient to check for consciousness
• Call for help

7. CVP line measures?

• Pressure in right atrium
• Pulmonary arteries
• Left ventricle
• Vena cava

8. In interpreting ECG results if there is clear evidence of atrial disruption this is interpreted as?

• Cardiac Arrest
• Ventricular tach
• Atrial Fibrillation
• Complete blockage of the heart

9. Which is the first drug to be used in cardia arrest of any aetiology?

• Adrenaline
• Amiodarone
• Atropine
• Calcium chloride

10. You are currently on placement in the emergency department (ED). A 55- year-old city worker is blue lighted into the ED having had a cardiorespiratory arrest at work. The paramedics have been resuscitating him for 3 minutes. On arrival, he is in ventricular fibrillation. Your mentor asks you the following question prior to your shift starting: What will be the most important part of the patient’s immediate advanced life support?

• Early defibrillation to restart the heart.
• Early cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
• Administration of adrenaline every 3 minutes.
• Correction of reversible causes of hypoxia.

11. In Spinal cord injury patients, what is the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia (a sudden rise in blood pressure)?

• Bowel obstruction
• Fracture below the level of the spinal lesion
• Pressure sore
• Urinary obstruction

12. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is MOST appropriate for the client?

• Reverse isolation
• Respiratory isolation
• Standard precautions
• Contact isolation

13. You are looking after a 75 year old woman who had an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do reduce the risk of her developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• Give regular analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she can mobilize as soon as possible. Advise her not to cross her legs
• Make sure that she is fitted with properly fitting anti-embolic stockings & that are removed daily
• Ensure that she is wearing anti-embolic stockings & that she is prescribed prophylactic anticoagulation & is doing hourly limb exercises
• Give adequate analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with assistance, give subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin as prescribed. Make sure that she is wearing anti-embolic stockings

14. Anti-embolic stockings an effective means of reducing the potential of developing a deep vein thrombosis because:

• They promote arterial blood flow.
• They promote venous blood flow.
• They reduce the risk of postoperative swelling.
• They promote lymphatic fluid flow, and drainage

15. People with blood group A are able to receive blood from the following:

• Group A only
• Groups AB or B
• Groups A or O
• Groups A, B or O

16. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider to a magnetic resonance imaging MRI?

• History of cardiovascular disease
• Allergy to iodine and shellfish
• Permanent pacemaker in place
• Allergy to dairy products

17. Mrs Bond is complaining of shortness of breath. On assessment, her legs are swollen indicative of tissue oedema. What do you think is the possible cause of this?

• left side heart failure
• right side heart failure
• renal failure
• liver failure

18. Mrs Bond has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which of the following statements is true?

• Intramuscular route administration of adrenaline is always recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
• Intramuscular route for adrenaline is not recommended during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
• Adrenaline can be administered intradermally during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
• None of the Above

19. All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:

• Pneumothorax
• Abnormal blood clotting screen or low platelet count
• Malignant pleural effusion.
• Post-operative, for example thoracotomy, cardiac surgery

20. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness, bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

• client has brain stem herniation
• spinal headache

21. You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?

• The patient is showing symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Investigate source of fluid loss, administer fluid replacement and get medical support.
• The patient is demonstrating symptoms of atelectasis. Administer a nebulizer, refer to physiotherapist for assessment.
• The patient is demonstrating symptoms of uncontrolled pain. Administer prescribed analgesia, seek assistance from medical team.
• The patient is demonstrating symptoms of hyperventilation. Offer reassurance, administer oxygen.

22. Which of the following can a patient not have if they have a pacemaker in situ?

• MRI
• Xray
• Barium swallow
• CT

23. Orthostatic hypotension is diagnosed if the systolic blood pressure drops by how many mmHg?

• 20
• 25
• 30
• 35

24. How to act in an emergency in a health care set up?

• according to the patient's condition
• according to instruction
• according to situation
• according to our competence

25. If Tony’s heart rate slows down, this is referred to as:

• hypertension
• hypotension
• bradycardia
• tachycardia

26. A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’ and you find that the pulse is too fast to manually palpate. What would your actions be?

• Shout for help and run to collect the crash trolley.
• Ask the patient to calm down and check her most recent set of bloods and fluid balance.
• A full set of observations: blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation and temperature. It is essential to perform a 12 lead ECG. The patient should then be reviewed by the doctor.
• Check baseline observations and refer to the cardiology team.

27. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation:

• chest compression should be 5-6 cm deep at a rate of 100-120 compression per minute
• a ratio of 2 ventilation to 15 cardiac compression is required
• the hands should be placed over the lower third of the sternum to do chest compression
• check for normal breathing for 1 full minute to diagnose cardiac arrest

28. Why is it important to manually assess pulse rate?

• Amplitude, volume and irregularities cannot be detected using automated electronic methods
• Tachycardia cannot be detected using automated electronic methods
• Bradycardia cannot be detected using automated electronic method
• It is more reassuring to the patient

29. A client is having diagnosed atrial activity, identify the ECG

• Atrial fibrillation
• cardiac arrest
• ventricular tachycardia
• asystole

30. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?

• Re-site the cannula
• Inform the doctor
• Apply warm compress
• Discontinue infusion

31. Mrs Robinson’s doctor is suspecting an aortic aneurysm after her chest x-ray. Which of the most common type of aneurysm?

• cerebral
• abdominal
• femoral
• thoracic

32. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the following medial conditions?

• A diagnosis of AIDS and cytomegalovirus
• A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray
• A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia
• Advanced carcinoma of the lung

33. A patient is being discharged form the hospital after having coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best serve the needs of this patient at this point?

• Primary care
• Secondary care
• Tertiary care
• Public health care

34. What do the adverse effects of hypotension include?

• Decreased conscious level, reduced blood flow to vital organs and renal failure.
• The patient could become confused and not know who they are.
• Decreased conscious level, oliguria and reduced coronary blood flow.
• The patient feeling very cold

35. In what instances shouldn't you position a patient in a side-lying position?

• If they are pregnant
• If they have a spinal fracture
• If they have pressure sore
• If they have lower limb pain

36. In a fully saturated haemoglobin molecule, responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, how many of its haem sites are bound with oxygen?

• 2
• 4
• 6
• 8

37. The correct management of an adult patient in ventricular fibrillation (VF) cardiac arrest includes:

• an initial shock with a manual defibrillator or when prompted by an automated external defibrillator (AED)
• atropine 3 mg IV
• adenosine 500 mcg IV
• adrenaline 1 mg IV before first shock

38. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a magnetic resonance imaging MRI?

• History of cardiovascular disease
• Allergy to iodine and shellfish
• Permanent pacemaker in place
• Allergy to dairy products

39. Which of the following is the most common aneurysm site?

• Hepatic Artery
• Abdominal aorta
• Renal arch
• Circle of Wills

40. Patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the best nursing intervention?

• move the body as a unit
• move one body part at a time
• move the head first and the feet last
• never move the patient at all
• Inadvertent puncture of the kidney and cardiac arrest

41. Why are support stockings used?

• To aid mobility
• To promote arterial flow
• To aid muscle strength
• To promote venous flow

42. After lumbar laminectomy, which the appropriate method to turn the patient?

• Patient holds at the side of the bed, with crossed knees try to turn by own
• Head is raised & knees bent, patient tries to make movement
• Patient is turned as a unit

43. In DVT TEDS stockings affect circulation by:

• increasing blood flow velocity in the legs by compression of the deep venous system - thromboembolism-deterrent hose
• decreasing blood flow velocity in legs by compression of the deep venous system

44. Early signs of phlebitis would include:

• slight pain and redness
• increased WBC
• Pyrexia
• Swelling

45. How many phases of korotkoff sounds are there?

• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

46. A nurse is advised one hour vital charting of a patient, how frequently it should be recorded?

• Every 3 hours
• Every shift
• Whenever the vital signs show deviations from normal
• Every one hour

47. A nurse assists the physician is performing liver biopsy. After the biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?

• Supine
• Prone
• Left-side lying
• Right-side lying

48. Which of the following is an indication for intrapleural chest drain insertion?

• Pneumothorax
• Tuberculosis
• Asthma
• Malignancy of lungs

49. What is atrial fibrillation?

• heart condition that causes, an irregular and often abnormally slow heart rate
• An irregular and often abnormally fast heart rate
• A regular heart rhythm with an abnormally slow heart rate
• A regular heart rhythm with an abnormally fast heart rate

50. When would an orthostatic blood pressure measurement be indicated?

• If the patient has a recent history of falls.
• If the patient has a history of dizziness or syncope on changing position.
• If the patient has a history of hypertension.
• If the patient has a history of hypotension